1. A 58 year old man presented to the orthopaedic OPD. Over the previous five weeks, there had been progressive pain in his left knee, which had suddenly become exacerbated during the previous week after a misstep. Since that moment, he had been unable to bear weight on it. A physical examination showed a swollen left knee, and all movements of the knee were extremely painful for the patient. He also gave a history of fracture of the femoral shaft of the same leg 2 years back. Laboratory data revealed no abnormalities. The radiographs, however, showed an osteolytic lesion in the distal femur and a fracture line at the level of the proximal aspect of the lateral femoral condyle. Give DDs and outline the management.
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